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PRMIA 8020 Exam Syllabus Topics:
Topic
Details
Topic 1
Topic 2
Topic 3
Topic 4
Topic 5
Topic 6
Topic 7
PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q24-Q29):
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following best describes the role of the compliance department?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Three Lines of Defense Model
The compliance department functions as the second line of defense, ensuring oversight over the first line's compliance controls.
It does not directly implement controls but monitors and advises on compliance risk management.
Responsibilities of the Compliance Department
Ensures regulatory compliance with laws, policies, and industry standards.
Monitors and enforces risk management controls within business operations.
Provides advisory and training on compliance risks.
Why Answer D is Correct
The first line of defense (business operations) is responsible for executing compliance controls.
The compliance department (second line) provides oversight and governance to ensure compliance adherence.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . The compliance department is responsible for implementing the first line's compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - The first line (business units) implement compliance controls, while compliance oversees.
B . The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the auditor's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - Internal audit is part of the third line of defense, not directly overseen by compliance.
C . The compliance department is responsible for providing oversight over the board's implementation of compliance risk management controls.
Incorrect - The board provides high-level governance; compliance ensures business adherence to regulations.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Governance & Compliance Oversight Framework
Basel Committee's Guidelines on Compliance Risk Management
NEW QUESTION # 25
In operational resilience, what is impact tolerance?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Impact Tolerance is a key concept in Operational Resilience, defined as the ability of a firm to withstand, respond to, and recover from disruptions. According to PRMIA and global regulatory frameworks (such as the Bank of England's Operational Resilience Framework), impact tolerance is specifically tied to business services rather than processes.
Step 1: Defining Impact Tolerance
Impact tolerance is the maximum acceptable level of disruption to an important business service, beyond which there would be intolerable harm to customers, financial markets, or regulatory obligations.
It is not the same as risk appetite or risk capacity, as those deal with broader organizational risk exposure.
Step 2: Why Business Services Matter
PRMIA defines business services as end-to-end services delivered to clients and stakeholders, such as payments processing, trade execution, or loan approvals.
Disruptions to these services directly impact customers and financial stability, making business service resilience the core focus of impact tolerance.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("tolerance for disruption to a particular business process")
Incorrect because impact tolerance applies to services, not just internal processes.
Option C ("a firm's risk appetite statement")
Incorrect because risk appetite focuses on how much risk a firm is willing to take, while impact tolerance is about surviving disruptions.
Option D ("a firm's risk capacity statement")
Incorrect because risk capacity is the maximum level of risk a firm can bear, which is broader than business service disruptions.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Operational Resilience Guidelines - Defines impact tolerance as a service-based metric.
Bank of England's Operational Resilience Framework - Establishes impact tolerance as a limit on business service disruption.
Final Conclusion:
Impact tolerance focuses on business services, not just internal processes or risk appetite, making Option B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Under the previous Basel II approach, which was not an approach for operational risk?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Overview of Basel II Approaches for Operational Risk
Basel II introduced three main approaches to calculating capital requirements for operational risk:
Basic Indicator Approach (BIA)
The Standardized Approach (TSA)
Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA)
Why Answer D is Correct
Alternative Measurement Approach (AMA) is not a recognized Basel II approach.
The correct term under Basel II was Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA).
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Basic Indicator Approach (BIA).
Correct - A simple approach where capital is set as a fixed percentage of gross income.
B . The Standardized Approach (TSA).
Correct - Categorizes operational risk into business lines, each with assigned risk factors.
C . Advanced Measurement Approach (AMA).
Correct - Uses internal models to calculate capital requirements based on loss data, scenario analysis, and risk controls.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
Basel II Framework for Operational Risk (2004)
PRMIA Risk Management Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 27
Stafford Beers Viable System Model (VSM) has several implementation elements. Which of the following is not one of these?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Stafford Beer's Viable System Model (VSM)
VSM is a cybernetic model designed to analyze and improve organizational structures.
It consists of five core subsystems that define governance and operations.
Why Answer B is Correct
The VSM does not explicitly include "Input" as a key component.
The key elements of VSM include Governance, Process, and Output, but it does not define "Input" as a standalone concept.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Governance
Correct - Governance is part of VSM and deals with decision-making and oversight.
C . Process
Correct - Process represents the operational functions within VSM.
D . Output
Correct - Output refers to the results of the system's operations.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Governance and Cybernetic Systems Guidelines
Stafford Beer's Viable System Model Framework
NEW QUESTION # 28
For the Northern Rock case study, what was the low-probability-high-impact event that was most responsible for the loss event?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Step 1: Understanding the Northern Rock Case Study
Northern Rock was a UK bank that collapsed in 2007 due to its heavy reliance on short-term wholesale funding rather than customer deposits.
When the 2007 financial crisis hit, the inter-bank lending market and commercial paper market froze, cutting off Northern Rock's access to liquidity.
Step 2: Why Option C Is Correct
Northern Rock depended on short-term borrowing to fund long-term mortgage lending.
When the liquidity crisis hit, it couldn't refinance its debt, leading to a bank run and collapse.
The Bank of England had to intervene, and the UK government nationalized Northern Rock in 2008.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Acquisition of Merrill Lynch") → Incorrect because this happened in 2008, after Northern Rock's failure.
Option B ("Withdrawal of Deposit Protection") → Incorrect because UK deposit protection remained in place.
Option D ("Real estate exposure in Berlin") → Incorrect because Northern Rock's problem was funding liquidity, not real estate losses.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Liquidity Risk Management Framework - Describes how liquidity shocks impact banks like Northern Rock.
Basel III Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) Standards - Created after Northern Rock to prevent similar liquidity crises.
Final Conclusion:
The collapse of the inter-bank and commercial paper markets was the key low-probability-high-impact event that led to Northern Rock's failure, making Option C the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 29
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